“Operations in the Red and Arabian Seas, Bab al-Mandab Strait, and the Gulf of Aden are continuing, escalating, and effective,” Abdul Malik al-Houthi added in a televised speech. He gave no details of the submarine weapons.
Ships owned by individuals or entities in Israel, the U.S. and U.K. or sailing under their flags are banned from the Red Sea, Gulf of Aden and Arabian Sea, Thursday’s notices said.
“The Humanitarian Operations Center was established in Sanaa to coordinate the safe and peaceful passage of ships and vessels that have no connection to Israel,” a senior Houthi official told Reuters on Thursday.
No ships have been sunk nor crew killed during the Houthi campaign. However there are concerns about the fate of the UK-registered Rubymar cargo vessel, which was struck on Feb. 18 and its crew evacuated.
Just because two countries are warring, this gives a third country zero moral agency to strike random civilian ships bound in international waters.
Edit:
Currently, the Houthis are doing their best to exterminate LGBT communities within the borders of Yemen:
Amnesty International
I suppose under Article 1 if the cgppgc that gives any nation carte blanche to step in and attack them to stop this, right? … right?
Yemen is obliged by international law to do everything in their power to stop Genocide when they see it occurring. And Yemen has concluded that israel is committing Genocide. Thus they are forced to do this.
Article 1
Genocide convention Wikipedia :
Here is an alternative Piped link(s):
Thus they are forced to do this.
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Which particular international law is Yemen bound to in its role towards preventing genocide? And what the fuck does that have to do with attacking civilian ships?
Article one of the UN Genocide convention.
Those ships are complicit in Genocide.
Show me specifically where in Article I of the UN genocide convention does it enable any nation to attack indiscriminately trade ships in international waters on the basis of genocides happening in other countries.
Indiscriminately?
Yemen only ships involved in Genocide. The video I linked explains it pretty well.
Do some research before you start commenting.
Nope. You’re lying. And you dodged my question. I’ll ask again. Where in Article I does it enable it?
Article 1 of the Genocide convention. it’s mentioned in the video that you didn’t watch.
And the video explains your other question too. If you watch it and still don’t agree then you can tell me which point you think is wrong.
So I watched the video. Where exactly does he talk about Article I? On another note, I’m already quite familiar with Article I since I’ve been studying it since this conflict started. So, once more (third time) I’ll ask: where does Article I enable countries to randomly attack civilian trade ships?